Apologetics for the Masses #426: Calvinism - TULIP (Part 2)

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Topic

The 5 Points of Calvinism - TULIP (Part 2)

Introduction

     In last week's issue - https://www.biblechristiansociety.com/newsletter/608-apologetics-for-the-masses-425-calvinism-tulip - I started to take a look at the 5 points of 5-Point Calvinism - which have their own little acronym...TULIP, which stands for:

Total Depravity

Unconditional Election

Limited Atonement

Irresistible Grace

Perseverance of the Saints

     I showed that the first 3 of those 5 points don't really stand up well under any kind of logical or scriptural scrutiny.  This week I was planning on tackling Points #4 and #5 - Irresistible Grace and the Perseverence of the Saints - but a number of things have interfered with my plans today, so I'm just going to talk about Point #4 - Irresistible Grace - and leave Point #5 for the next issue.  So, this one will be kinda short. 

     Now, let's see how well "Irresistible Grace" fares when held up to the light of reason and Scripture.

Challenge/Response/Strategy

From the carm.org Website:

4) Irresistible Grace – The term, unfortunately, suggests a mechanical and coercive force upon an unwilling subject. This is not the case. Instead, it is the act of God making the person willing to receive him. It does not mean that a person cannot resist God’s will.  It means that when God moves to save/regenerate a person, the sinner cannot thwart God’s movement and he will be regenerated.  God moves the heart of the person where he wishes it to go (Proverbs 21:1). The choice and mercy of God depend on God’s desire, not man’s ability (Romans 9:18).

 

My Comments

     I love how how Slick words this - Irresistible Grace "does not mean that a person cannot resist God's will.  It means that when God moves to save/regenerate a person, the sinner cannot thwart God's movement and he will be regenerated."  In other words, Irresistible Grace does not mean that a person cannot resist God's will, except, of course, when God moves to save/regenerate you - then you cannot resist God's will. I.e., God is going to save you whether you want to be saved or not and whether you cooperate with Him or not.  So, apparently, in all the things that don't matter, you can resist God's will.  But, in the one thing that matters...salvation...you cannot resist God's will. 

     Okay, 1st thing to consider: In what book, chapter, and verse of the Bible does it say that?  It doesn't.  That is John Calvin's - and every Calvinist since - private fallible interpretation of the Bible that says that.  And, to go back to one of the verses I mentioned last week - 1 Tim 2:3-4 - which says, "...God our Savior, Who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth," if God wants all men to be saved, then why does He not "move to save/regenerate" all men?  Is God not capable of saving all men?  Or, is it that maybe the Father wishes all men to be saved but He's outvoted by Jesus and the Holy Spirit?  Or, maybe God "mostly" wishes all men to be saved but not "completely" wishes all men to be saved?  Or, maybe...just maybe...the sinner can indeed "thwart God's movement" to save him?  That there is no such thing as irresistible grace?  By the way, where is that phrase - "irresistible grace" - in the Bible? 

     Another thing that always puzzles me when it comes to "irresistible grace," is that Jesus, when He first started preaching, preached repentance: "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand," (Matt 4:17).  Why did He do that?  If, according to the doctrine of irresistible grace, you are going to be saved or damned based on the "movement" of God to save/regenerate this sinner but not that one - then why is Jesus telling people to repent?  Those who are going to repent are going to do so whether He tells them or not, and those who are not going to repent are not going to do so regardless of what He says to them.  So why bother telling people to "repent" if the repenting or not repenting is not up to the individual involved?

     But, is that right?  I mean, look at Luke 13:3-5.  Jesus twice tells some folks that "unless you repent, you will all likewise perish."  It sure seems as if the people He's talking to have a choice in the matter.  That it's kind of up to them as to whether or not they repent.  But, the doctrine of irresistible grace says it's not up to them.  And then, there are other Scripture passages such as 2 Peter 3:9 - "The Lord is not slow about His promise as some count slowness, but is forbearing toward you, not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance," that just absolutely do not fit with this flawed concept of irresistible grace.  Think about it!  If God's grace is irresistible when He moves to save you, then why is He having to be patient and wait for some folks to repent?  Is His grace irresistible or not?  If it is, then there shouldn't have to be any waiting around for anyone to repent.  And what's this nonsense about God not wishing that "any" should perish and that "all" should repent?  Wait...what?! 

     And then there are problematic verses like the ones in Revelation 2.  For example, verse 5: "Remember then from what you have fallen, repent, and do the works you did at first.  If not, I will come to you and remove your lampstand from its place, unless you repent."   What kind of nonsense is that?  "Unless" you repent?  And why is Jesus telling them to repent, but if they don't repent, then He's going to remove their lampstand?  If Jesus wants them to repent, and the doctrine of irresistible grace is true, then they can't "not" repent!  So what Jesus is holding out as a possibility, isn't a possibility...according to Calvinists.  And Jesus says pretty much the same thing in verse 16.  Those verses are nothing more than nonsense if irresistible grace is really a thing.

     Plus, in verse 22, Jesus is talking about how He has given this woman named Jezebel time to repent, but she "refuses to repent of her immorality."  I'm confused.  Why would Jesus give her time to repent if He knows that she either can't repent, because she's not among the elect and destined to Hell, or if she is among the elect she's going to repent whether He gives her any time to do so or not?  Is He maybe toying with her?  "Hey, Jezebel, I'm giving you all this time to repent so that you can be saved, but I know you're not going to because I've made it impossible for you to repent because you're not one of the elect.  Nanny nanny boo boo!"  And then He turns to the elect and says, "Hey guys, isn't Jezebel a hoot?!"  And another thing, why is Jesus making it seem like she has a choice in the matter?  None of this makes sense if irresistible grace is true.

     Not finished yet.  Let's look at Luke 7:30, "...but the Pharisees and the lawyers rejected the purpose of God for themselves, not having been baptized by him [John the Baptist]."  So, the Pharisees and lawyers "rejected" the "purpose" of God for them.  The King James Version says having rejected the "counsel" of God for themselves.  But, the New King James Version says having rejected the "will" of God for themselves.  How is that possible?  Well, Slick does say that irresistible grace "does not mean that a person cannot resist God’s will".  So, a person can resist God's will.  Except, when God is moving to save/regenerate them.  Isn't that what He was trying to do with the Pharisees and lawyers?  After all, it was His will, or purpose, that they be baptized by John the Baptist.  John the Baptist's baptism was a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins (Mark 1:4).  So, it was God's will that the Pharisees and lawyers repent - which fits right in with 1 Tim 2:4 which says God wants all men to be saved - yet; the Pharisees and lawyers were not baptized by John.  Irresistible grace?  I don't think so. 

     Finally, doesn't it seem that his citing of Proverbs 21:1, sort of contradicts his claim that a person can indeed resist God's will?  Prov 21:1 says, "The king's heart is a stream of water in the hand of the Lord; He turns it wherever He will."  First of all, this passage is talking about a particular person - the king.  Yet, Slick makes it a universal statement applying to all men.  Secondly, if you keep reading this proverb, it metnions "the righteous" and "righteousness" a few times.  Uhmm...total depravity?  If we are totally depraved, then who are these righteous folks?  But, beyond that, if Proverbs 21:1 applies universally to all people, then let's go back to Luke 7:30.  God wanted the Pharisees and the lawyers to be baptized by John the Baptist.  But they rejected God in this matter.  Could God not turn their hearts like a stream of water to wherever He will? 

     If God desires all men to be saved (1 Tim 2:4; John 3:17) and Jesus died for all men (1 Tim 2:5-6; 1 Tim 4:10; 2 Cor 5:14-15; 1 John 2:2), and if the doctrine of irresistible grace be true, then all men are indeed saved.  But, Calvinists don't believe all men are saved.  Oops.

     Irresistible grace?  Again, I don't think so.

Closing Comments

I hope all of you have a great week!

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Apologetics for the Masses