Apologetics for the Masses - #384

     How should I respond?

Rob

Boise, ID

My Answer

     Essentially, the general response to such a statement should be: "If you have been properly baptized, then you are a Christian no matter what."  Baptism puts an indelible mark on a person's soul that cannot be removed, regardless of how much one may sin and through that sin be then separated from the Body of Christ. There are Christians in Hell.  Christians who, through mortal sin, have separated themselves from the Body of Christ and have earned for themselves a place in the eternal fiery furnace.  They still have the mark of their baptism as Christians on their souls and they are, undoubtedly, singled out for special punishment by the demons. 

     So, you can say to him, again, "Yes, if you have been baptized, you are a Christian; however, through your denial of certain Catholic doctrines and dogmas, you may have separated yourself from the Body of Christ...the Church.  But, it is not my place to judge the state of your soul."

     You could also add that he seriously misunderstands the "anathemas" of the Council of Trent.  They are not blanket condemnations to Hell of each and every Protestant.  They are a specific type of punishment that at one time was used by the Church in specific circumstances.  In addition, the phrase, "Let them be anathema," that was used a number of times by the Council of Trent, is language that was also used to point to the infallible nature of a particular pronouncement. 

     For more on that, check out this very good article on the word "anathema" by Jimmy Akin: https://www.catholic.com/magazine/print-edition/anathema

Question

     My wife & I have been debating our 16 year-old daughter about homosexuality. Could you please tell me whether the Church believes that homosexuality is defined by someone who merely has sexual thoughts/tendencies toward the same sex...or instead the Church believes it is defined by someone who consummates their thoughts by performing an actual physical act with someone of the same gender?

Kevin
Birmingham

My Answer

     Here are two statements from the Church regarding homosexuality:

1) "Homosexuality refers to relations between men or between women who experience an exclusive or predominant sexual attraction toward persons of the same sex. (CCC #2357)

2) "The number of men and women who have deep-seated homoseuxal tendencies is not negligible."  (CCC #2358)

     So, to apply those statements to your questions, I would say that, first of all, the Church doesn't necessarily have a doctrinal or dogmatic definition of the word.  Secondly, Jesus makes it very clear to us that thoughts have, essentially, the same consequences as actions - from a spiritual point of view.  Looking at a woman with lust in your heart makes you guilty of adultery, as the Bible tells us in Matthew 5, even if you do not follow through with actual physical relations with that woman. Hating your brother in your heart makes you guilty of violating the Commandment: "Thou shalt not kill," even if you never lift a finger to physically harm your brother.  So, there would be little distinction, if any, for purposes of a definition, between sexual thoughts/tendencies and the actual actions.  That is true whether your thoughts/tendencies/actions are heterosexual or homosexual in nature. 

     However, as noted above in paragraph 2358 of the Catechism, to be truly considered "homosexual," it seems the same-sex attraction (SSA) would need be "deep-seated," as opposed to temporary or occasional.

Question

In one of your newsletters you stated:

"The Church teaches us that the Sacrament of Baptism is for the living, not for the dead, because the Church teaches that the state of your soul at the moment of your death, is the state of your soul for all of eternity (either in a state of grace and headed to Heaven, or not in a state of grace and headed to Hell).  So, if one’s eternal destiny is set at the moment of their death, then baptism of the dead is completely pointless. The Church teaches that when you die, you immediately face your particular judgment (Heb 9:27).  So, again, if you are judged at the moment of your death, how could baptism of the dead be of any use to you after you’ve already been judged?" 

I'm curious how this is reconciled with the teaching on purgatory?  I thought that purgatory did, in fact, change that state of the soul after death; so what you've stated above confuses me.

Could you please help clear this up?

Thank you,

Tom